Weekly Current Affair Quiz(16-auagust-2021 to 21-august-2021) 1234567891011121314151617181920 0 votes, 0 avg 5 1 / 20 Q1. Consider the following statements regarding e-RUPI: 1.It is a contactless mode of digital transaction. 2.It will make Direct Benefit Transfer more effective. 3.It will prevent leakage and make the system more transparent. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi launched the digital payment solution e-RUPI, a person and purpose-specific digital payment solution. e-RUPI is a cashless and contactless instrument for digital payment. Thus, statement 1 is correct. Prime Minister said that e-RUPI voucher is going to play a huge role in making DBT more effective in digital transactions in the country and will give a new dimension to digital governance. Thus, statement 2 is correct. This will help everyone in targeted, transparent, and leakage-free delivery. He said e-RUPI is a symbol of how India is progressing by connecting people’s lives with technology. He also expressed happiness that this futuristic reform initiative has come at a time when the country is celebrating the Amrit Mahotsav on the 75th anniversary of independence. Thus, statement 3 is correct 2 / 20 Q2. Read the following statements: 1.Cassini Huygens was NASA's mission to Saturn. 2.Methane and dihydrogen gases have recently been detected by this spacecraft only on Saturn. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: NASA’s Cassini spacecraft has detected unusually high concentrations of methane, along with carbon dioxide and dihydrogen, in the moons of Saturn by flying through their plumes. The spacecraft has found that Titan has methane in its atmosphere and Enceladus has a liquid ocean with erupting plumes of gas and water. Thus, statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. The methane wafting from Enceladus may be a sign that life teems in the Saturn moon's subsurface sea, a new study reports. The researchers aren't saying life exists on Enceladus, but they are saying microbes are one possible explanation for the data. (101 Words) 3 / 20 Q3. Read the following statements regarding e-VIDYA: 1.This program is announced for the top 10 universities of the country along with schools. 2.Consist of ‘Diksha’ involving e-content and QR-coded energized book for all the classes. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: About PM eVidya- One Nation One Digital Platform Here, the top 100 universities of the country have allowed starting online education after 30th May 2020. As everyone does not have access to the internet so Sitharaman has announced the Swayam Prabha DTH channel. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect. A program for multi-mode access to digital/online education will also be launched under the PM eVIDYA program. The government is set to launch 12 more channels. The PM eVidya program also consists of ‘Diksha’ involving e-content and QR-coded energized books for all the classes and is called ‘one nation, one digital platform’. The government will take all these efforts to ensure the education of students does not suffer due to nationwide lockdown. Thus, statement 2 is correct 4 / 20 Q4. Read the following statements about Agni-P: 1.Agni-P is a new generation advanced variant of the Agni class missile. 2.It is a canister-based missile. Which of the given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: A new generation nuclear-capable ballistic missile Agni-P (Prime) was successfully test-fired by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) from Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam island off the coast of Odisha, Balasore. Agni-P is a new generation advanced variant of the Agni class (under IGMDP - Integrated Guided Missile Development Program). Thus, statement 1 is correct. It is a canister-based missile with a range capability between 1,000 and 2,000 km. Canisterisation of missiles reduces the time required to launch the missile while improving its storage and mobility. Many advanced technologies including composites, propulsion systems, innovative guidance and control mechanisms, and state-of-the-art navigation systems have been introduced. The Agni-P missile would further strengthen India's credible deterrence capabilities. Thus, statement 2 is correct 5 / 20 Q5. Which one of the following is correct about Raja Parba? a) It is the main festival of Jammu & Kashmir b) It is believed that during this festival earth prepares itself for future agriculture c) In the time of the Harappan civilization, it was celebrated as the main agricultural holiday d) Only citrus fruit can be offered to the goddess on the day EXPLANATION: Raja Parba festival is being celebrated in Odisha on June 14, 2021. It is a 3-day festival that celebrates womanhood. It is believed that during this period Mother Earth menstruates and prepares herself for future agricultural activities as the monsoon arrives. This festival is synonymous with varieties of cakes (pithas). Thus, Odisha Tourism Development Corporation (OTDC) has also launched a special program named ‘Pitha on Wheels’. Raja Parba is also known as Mithuna Sankranti. It is a three-day-long festival celebrating womanhood in Odisha. The second day of the festival marks the beginning of the solar month of Mithuna, on which the season of rains starts. It is believed that Mother Goddess Earth undergoes menstruation during the first three days. The fourth day is called Vasumati Snana or the ceremonial bath of Bhudevi. This festival became more popular in medieval times as an agricultural holiday marking worship of Bhudevi. Hence option (b) is correct. 6 / 20 Q6. Read the following statements about Nok Culture: 1.This culture was developed in Central Nigeria. 2.The Nok Culture is known for its terracotta sculptures. 3.Their farming tools were primarily made of hard stone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only EXPLANATION: Recently the scientists from the University of Bristol and Goethe University have found traces of bee wax in the potteries unearthed in Nigeria. These potteries belong to the Nok Culture. From the unearthed pots, it has been concluded that bee and bee products were created 40,000 years ago. The practice of beekeeping dates back to 2600 BCE. The culture developed in Central Nigeria in 1500 BCE. The people of Nok Culture belong to the Iron Age. The Nok Culture is known for its terracotta sculptures. The Nok people used clay to make their sculptures. The clay used in all the sculptures was similar. This showed that the clay came from the same source and was controlled by a central authority. Their farming tools were made of iron. Hence option (a) is correct. 7 / 20 Q7. Which of the following steps have been taken by the government to promote fuel efficiency in the automobile sector? 1.BSVI norms implementation 2.Tyre rating program 3.Blending with ethanol 4.Cafe norms Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 EXPLANATION: BSVI standards are targeted at making improvements in three areas- emission control, fuel efficiency, and engine design. Thus, statement 1 is correct. A higher rating for rolling resistance indicates better fuel-saving while higher wet grip ratings indicate solid braking capability of the tyre; a lower noise level connotes a more comfortable drive. These mandatory norms for rolling resistance, wet grip, and rolling sound emissions proposed by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways will pave the way for “star rating” or “labeling” of tyres in the country. Thus, statement 2 is correct. When ethanol is blended with petrol, the resulting mixture has a higher octane (meaning more oxygen) rating than petrol alone, and this higher octane results in more efficient combustion than petrol alone. Thus, statement 3 is correct. With CAFE norms, a car's mileage is seen to improve and will be decided on liters of fuel consumed by a vehicle to run 100 kilometers. Also, a reduction in carbon footprint is targeted in the auto industry. Thus, statement 4 is correct 8 / 20 Q8. Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana: 1.It was launched in May 2016, to reduce the serious health hazards associated with domestic cooking. 2.A deposit-free LPG connection is given to the eligible household with the financial assistance of Rs 1,600 per connection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: About Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana: It was launched in May 2016. Aim: To provide LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) connections to poor households. Key features: A deposit-free LPG connection is provided to the eligible household with the financial assistance of Rs 1,600 per connection by the Centre. Target: The scheme gained attraction with its ambit being expanded to include 80 million poor families from the earlier target of 50 million families with an additional allocation of Rs 4,800 crore. Objectives of the scheme are: Empowering women and protecting their health. Reducing the serious health hazards associated with cooking based on fossil fuel. Reducing the number of deaths in India due to unclean cooking fuel. Preventing young children from a significant number of acute respiratory illnesses caused due to indoor air pollution by burning fossil fuel. Thus, option (c) is correct 9 / 20 Q9. Consider the following statements about SDG (Sustainable Development Goals) India Index 2020-21: 1.It tracks the progress of all states and UTs on 17 Goals and 34 indicators. 2.The SDG India Index scores range between 0–100. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: SDG (Sustainable Development Goals) India Index 2020-21 was released by the NITI Aayog. The SDG India Index was first launched in December 2018 in collaboration with the United Nations in India. It tracks the progress of all states and UTs on 16 Goals (out of 17 SDGs) and 115 indicators. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect. These are aligned with the National Indicator Framework (NIF) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. The SDG India Index scores range between 0–100. Thus, statement 2 is correct. States and UTs are classified into four categories based on their score as aspirant: 0–49, performer: 50–64, front-runner: 65–99, achiever: 100. The country’s overall SDG score improved by 6 points — from 60 in 2019 to 66 in 2020-21. Kerala has retained the top rank with a score of 75. Himachal Pradesh and Tamil Nadu both took the second spot with a score of 74. 10 / 20 Q10. Consider the following statements about Commission for Air Quality Management: 1.It monitors the air quality in the Delhi-NCR region. 2.The Supreme Court monitors air pollution as per the judgment in ‘M. C. Mehta vs Union of India’ case in 1988. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The Commission for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Bill, 2021, was passed by both Houses. What is the current practice? The monitoring and management of air quality in the Delhi-NCR region has been done in pieces by multiple bodies including_ the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) the state pollution control boards the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) of the National Capital Region the state governments in the region, including Delhi, Haryana, U.P., and Rajasthan The functions are monitored by the Union Ministry of Environment and Forests and Climate Change (MoEF). Also, the Supreme Court monitors air pollution as per the judgment in the ‘M. C. Mehta vs Union of India’ case in 1988. Thus, option (c) is correct. 11 / 20 Q11. Consider the following statements: 1.Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) has included the age group 18 to 70 years with a bank account. 2.PMSBY is the Finance Ministry’s accident insurance scheme. 3.The scheme would be offered by Public Sector General Insurance Companies. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION: Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) - Accidental Death Insurance. The enrolments under PMSBY have gradually increased since its launch in 2015 with cumulative enrolments of 23.88 crores. PMSBY is a Finance Ministry’s accident insurance scheme that provides insurance cover to people, especially the poor and the under-privileged sections of society. Eligibility - Age group 18 to 70 years with a bank account. Premium - Rs.12/annum will be auto-debited from the subscribers' bank account before 1st June of each annual coverage period. Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct. Risk Coverage Accidental Death of insured person - Rs 2 Lakh Total irrecoverable loss of both eyes or loss of use of both hands or feet - Rs 2 Lakh Implementation - The scheme will be offered by all Public Sector General Insurance Companies and all other insurers who are willing to join the scheme and tie up with banks for this purpose. Thus, statement 3 is also correct 12 / 20 Q12. Consider the following statements about Constitution 127th Amendment Bill, 2021: 1.The Bill seeks to restore the power of state governments to identify Other Backward Classes. 2.The President can not notify the list of socially and educationally backward classes for the central government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The Bill seeks to restore the power of state governments to identify Other Backward Classes that are socially and economically backward. Thus, statement 1 is correct. In May 2021, the Supreme Court, in an order, had empowered only the central government for such identification. The Bill amends this to provide that the President may notify the list of socially and educationally backward classes only for purposes of the central government. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. This central list will be prepared and maintained by the central government. The Bill enables states and union territories to prepare their own list of socially and educationally backward classes. This list must be made by law and may differ from the central list. 13 / 20 Q13. The word “DABUS” was recently seen in the news, it is_ a) Artificial intelligence system. b) Biotechnology for genetic manipulation. c) Nano technology-powered robot. d) None of the above. EXPLANATION: South Africa, for the first time in the world, has granted a patent to an ‘artificial intelligence system’ relating to a “food container based on fractal geometry” innovation. The innovation involves interlocking food containers that are easy for robots to grasp and stack. What’s the issue now? The patent has been given to an artificial intelligence (AI) system (called DABUS); not a human being. What is the DABUS? DABUS stands for “device for the autonomous bootstrapping of unified sentience”. It is an AI system created by Stephen Thaler, a pioneer in the field of AI and programming. The system simulates human brainstorming and creates new inventions. DABUS is a particular type of AI, often referred to as “creativity machines” because they are capable of independent and complex functioning. Thus, option (a) is correct. 14 / 20 Q14. Consider the following statements about the Mid-Day meal scheme: 1.The Scheme comes under the Ministry of HRD. 2.It was launched in 1995 as the National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The scheme guarantees one meal to all children in government and aided schools and madrasas supported under Samagra Shiksha. Students up to Class VIII are guaranteed one nutritional cooked meal at least 200 days in a year. The Scheme comes under the Ministry of HRD. Thus, statement 1 is correct. It was launched in 1995 as the National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education (NP – NSPE), a centrally sponsored scheme. In 2004, the scheme was relaunched as the Mid Day Meal Scheme. Thus, statement 2 is correct. The Scheme is also covered by the National Food Security Act, 2013. Address hunger and malnutrition, increase enrolment and attendance in school, improve socialization among castes, provide employment at the grassroots level especially to women 15 / 20 Q15. Recently, the Union government has given the nod for the opening of two new Strategic Petroleum Reserves in PPP mode. They are located at_ a) Chandikhol and Mangalore b) Chadikhol and Padur c) Vizag and Bikaner d) Bikaner and Rajkot EXPLANATION: In the first phase of the Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) programme, the government, through its special tool India Strategic Petroleum Reserve Limited (ISPRL), established oil storage facilities with a total capacity of 5.33 million metric tons (MMT) in 3 locations. All the three storage facilities in Visakhapatnam (1.33 MMT), Mangaluru (1.5 MMT), and Padur (2.5 MMT) are filled with crude oil. In accordance with the second phase of the Strategic Petroleum Reserve (SPR) programme, the government approved the establishment of two additional commercial and strategic underground storage facilities at Chandikhol (4 MMT) and Padur (2.5 MMT) with total capacity storage of 6.5 MMT in PPP model. Thus, option (b) is correct. 16 / 20 Q16. Operation Greens, often seen in news is associated with which one of the following? Generation of green energy via rooftop solar power plants a) Generation of green energy via rooftop solar power plants b) Tree plantation on sides of highways c) Program for regulating prices of several vegetables d) Afforestation program in Thar desert EXPLANATION: To give fair prices to the farmers for green vegetables, the Government is implementing the scheme of ‘Operation Greens’ for integrated development of Tomato, Onion, and Potato (TOP) value chain from 2018-19. The major objectives of this scheme inter alia include enhancing value realization of TOP farmers; Price stabilization for producers and consumers; reduction in post-harvest losses; increase in food processing capacities and value addition in the TOP value chain by creating firm linkages with production clusters. Further, the Government has extended the Short Term Price Stabilization Measures from Tomato, Onion, and Potato to another 41 notified crops-fruits and vegetable w.e.f. 11.06.2020. Thus, option (c) is correct. 17 / 20 Q17. Which of the following statements is/are the part of warnings recently published in the 6th Assessment report of IPCC? 1.Earth will certainly breach the limit of 1.5 degree centigrade and now only damage control can be done. 2.Green plants have absorbed more than 95% of the excess heat from greenhouse gas emissions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: As per the 6th Assessment report of IPCC, the average surface temperature of the Earth will certainly cross 1.5 °C over pre-industrial levels in the next 20 years (By 2040) and 2°C by the middle of the century without a sharp reduction of emissions. Thus, statement 1 is correct. The Fifth Assessment Report published by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) in 2013 revealed that the ocean had absorbed more than 93% of the excess heat from greenhouse gas emissions since the 1970s. This is causing ocean temperatures to rise. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect. 18 / 20 Q18. Read the following statements regarding Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC): 1.IPCC is an inter-governmental body under the aegis of the UN. 2.Its membership is open to WMO (World Meteorological Organisation) member countries. 3.IPCC received the Nobel Peace prize in 2007 for its contribution to understanding climate change. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION: The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) is an intergovernmental body of the United Nations-mandated to provide objective scientific information relevant to understanding human-induced climate change, its natural, political, and economic impacts and risks, and possible response options. It was established in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), with subsequent endorsement by the United Nations General Assembly, the same year. Its membership is open to all member states of the WMO and UN, and the IPCC is currently composed of 195 countries. The IPCC's Fifth Assessment Report heavily informed the UNFCCC's landmark Paris Agreement in 2015. It shared the 2007 Nobel Peace Prize with Al Gore for contributions to the human understanding of climate change. Thus, all statements are correct. 19 / 20 Q19. Recently, Earth Overshoot Day was observed on 29th July 2021. In this regard which one of the following options is incorrect? a) This day indicates the resource utilization from earth beyond its regeneration capacity. b) It was an initiative of the World Wildlife Fund. c) It is associated with #MoveTheDate campaign d) The present analysis indicates that humans need 2 earths to meet their biological resource requirements. EXPLANATION: Earth Overshoot Day marks the date when humanity’s demand for ecological resources and services in a given year exceeds what Earth can regenerate in that year. According to the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), humanity has again used up all biological resources that our planet regenerates during the entire year by 29th July 2021. Humanity currently uses 74% more than what the planet’s ecosystems can regenerate — or 1.7 Earths. Thus, option (d) is incorrect. For 100 Days of Possibility, WWF is highlighting ways for each country or business to ready themselves for a world increasingly defined by an overshoot. These responses also #MoveTheDate of Earth Overshoot Day. 20 / 20 Q20. Consider the following statements regarding Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana: 1.It was started in 2019, on the birth anniversary of Jai Prakash Narayan. 2.Currently, each MP has to develop one village per year by 2024. 3.It is being implemented under the Ministry of Rural Development. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION: Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) was launched on 11th October 2014 (on the birth anniversary of Jai Prakash Narayan) with the aim to translate the comprehensive vision of Mahatma Gandhi about an ideal Indian village into reality, keeping in view the present context. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect. Under SAGY, each Member of Parliament adopts a Gram Panchayat and guides its holistic progress giving importance to social development at par with infrastructure. The 'Adarsh Grams' is to become schools of local development and governance, inspiring other Gram Panchayats. The goal was to develop three Adarsh Grams by March 2019, of which one was to be achieved by 2016. Thereafter, five such Adarsh Grams (one per year) will be selected and developed by 2024. Thus, statement 2 is correct. The scheme is being implemented under the Ministry of Rural Development. Thus, statement 3 is correct. Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Weekly Current Affair Quiz(09/August/2021 To 14/August/2021) 1234567891011121314151617181920 0 votes, 0 avg 4 1 / 20 Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Periyar Tiger Reserve: 1.It falls in the districts of Idukki and Pathanamthitta in Kerala. 2.It was declared as a sanctuary in 1950. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: Periyar National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary (PNP) is a protected area near Thekkady in the districts of Idukki, Kottayam and Pathanamthitta in Kerala. Thus, statement 1 is correct. It was declared as a sanctuary in 1950. It is notable as an elephant reserve and a tiger reserve. Thus, statement 2 is correct. The park is a repository of rare, endemic and endangered flora and fauna and forms the major watershed of two important rivers of Kerala, the Periyar and the Pamba. The park is often called the Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary or Thekkady. It is located high in the Cardamom Hills and Pandalam Hills of the South Western Ghats along the border with Tamil Nadu. The first official action towards conservation of wildlife and biodiversity in Kerala was taken in 1934 by the Maharaja of Travancore, Chithira Thirunal Balarama Va, by declaring the forests around Periyar lake as a private game reserve to stop the encroachment of tea plantations. 2 / 20 Q2. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the International Labour Organisation? 1.It was founded in October 1919 under the League of Nations. 2.It was a result of the Treaty of Washington. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The International Labour Organization (ILO) is a United Nations agency whose mandate is to advance social and economic justice through setting international labour standards. Founded in October 1919 under the League of Nations, it is the first and oldest specialised agency of the UN. Thus, statement 1 is correct. The ILO has 187 member states: 186 out of 193 UN member states plus Cook Islands. It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, with around 40 field offices around the world, and employs some 3,381 staff across 107 nations, of whom 1,698 work in technical cooperation programmes and projects. Treaty of Washington was a treaty signed and ratified by the United Kingdom and the United States in 1871 during the first premiership of William Gladstone and the presidency of Ulysses S. Grant for the amicable settlement of the so-called Alabama Claims. ILO is the product of the treaty of Versailles. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 3 / 20 Q3. Consider following statements about Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2019-20: 1.There is a decline in the unemployment rate. 2.There is an increase in the labour force participation rate and worker population ratio. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The National Statistical Office (NSO) which lies under the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation launched this survey. India’s labour market is in distress followed by dwindling GDP growth and a lockdown due to the coronavirus pandemic. There is a decline in the unemployment rate to 4.8% in 2019-20 which is the lowest in three years. Thus, statement 1 is correct. According to usual status, data shows a fall from 6.1% in 2017-18 to 4.8% in 2019-20. Thus, statement 2 is correct. The labour force participation rate (LFPR) has increased from 36.9% to 40.1% along with the worker population ratio (WPR) increased from 34.7% to 38.2% during the same period. Private final consumption expenditure has declined by 26.7% in April-June 2020 over the same quarter in 2019 4 / 20 Q4. Consider the following statements about DNA Technology Regulation Bill 2019: 1.There must be consent for the collection of DNA as per provisions of the Bill. 2.There will be the establishment of a National DNA Data Bank, Regional DNA Data Banks and also a DNA regulatory board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: Regulation of the use of DNA technology for establishing the identity of certain persons including offenders, victims, suspects and undertrials. DNA testing is allowed only in respect of matters listed in the Schedule to the Bill like offences under Indian Penal Code 1860, civil matters such as paternity suits, for the establishment of individual identity etc. Thus, statement 1 is correct. Consent for the collection of DNA will be required as per provisions of the bill. Establishment of a National DNA Data Bank, Regional DNA Data Banks and also a DNA regulatory board. Thus, statement 2 is correct. Punishment: Those leaking the DNA profile information to people or entities who are not entitled to have it, will be punished with a jail term of up to three years and a fine of up to Rs. 1 lakh. 5 / 20 Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the estimation of Poverty in India: 1.The first-ever Poverty estimation was done by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1901. 2. V. M. Dandekar and N. Rath committee made recommendations based on the total annual income of the whole family. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The first-ever Poverty estimation was done by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1901 which was published in his book “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India”. Thus, statement 1 is correct. The National Planning Committee of 1936 has estimated poverty in India during Colonial rule. It calculated poverty linking nutrition, clothing, and housing. V. M. Dandekar and N. Rath committee made the first systematic assessment of poverty in India in 1971. This was based on National Sample Survey (NSS) data from 1960-61. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. This committee fixed the poverty line based on expenditure that was adequate to provide 2250 calories per day in both rural and urban areas. 6 / 20 Q6. Which of the following ministries is associated with the recently released National climate vulnerability report? a) Ministry of environment forest and climate change b) Ministry of science and technology c) Ministry of earth sciences d) None of above EXPLANATION: The Department of Science and Technology (DST), under the Ministry of Science and Technology, has released the report titled ‘Climate Vulnerability Assessment for Adaptation Planning in India Using a Common Framework’. About the report: The report aims to carry out a current-climate state-level and district-level vulnerability assessment for India and also build the capacity of states to carry out vulnerability assessments using a common methodological framework. Based on an all-India assessment, this report identifies the most vulnerable states and districts in India with respect to current climate risk and the main drivers of vulnerability using a Vulnerability Index (VI). The assessment is based on a set of common indicators and common methodology. States also carried out district-level vulnerability assessments individually. It is essential for prioritising investment in climate adaptation. Thus, option (b) is correct 7 / 20 Q7. Global Climate Risk Index which indicates a level of exposure and vulnerability to extreme events, is published by_ a) Germanwatch b) UNEP c) UNFCCC d) WMO EXPLANATION: Global Climate Risk Index: It is released by Germany-based think tank Germanwatch. It indicates a level of exposure and vulnerability to extreme events, which countries should understand as warnings in order to be prepared for more frequent and/or more severe events in the future. In the CRI 2021, data from 180 countries were analysed. India has improved its ranking from 5th in CRI 2020 to 7th in CRI 2021. The Global Climate Risk Index 2021 analyses to what extent countries and regions have been affected by impacts of weather-related loss events (storms, floods, heatwaves etc). Human impacts (fatalities) and direct economic losses were analysed. The most recent data available — for 2019 and from 2000 to 2019 — were taken into account. Thus, option (a) is correct. 8 / 20 Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Act (GNCTD) 2021: 1.The term “government” in any law made by the Legislative Assembly shall mean the Lieutenant Governor (LG). 2.All executive action by the government of Delhi must be taken in the name of the LG. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: All executive action by the government of Delhi, whether taken on the advice of the Ministers or otherwise, must be taken in the name of the Lieutenant Governor (LG). Thus, statement 1 is correct. All executive action by the government, whether taken on the advice of the Ministers or otherwise, must be taken in the name of the LG. Thus, statement 2 is correct. On certain matters, as specified by the LG, his opinion must be obtained before taking any executive action on the decisions of the Minister/ Council of Ministers. The Legislative Assembly shall not make any rule to enable itself or its Committees to consider the matters of the day-to-day administration of the Capital or conduct inquiries in relation to the administrative decisions. Any of the rules made in contravention of this provision, before the commencement of the GNCTD Act, 2021, shall be ‘void’. 9 / 20 Q9. Consider the following statements regarding the Chipko Movement_ 1.The Chipko movement was a violent form of protest against deforestation by locals in the Himalayan region. 2.The support for the movement came only from the women’s organizations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The Chipko movement was a Gandhian form of protest against deforestation by locals in the Himalayan region. To stop deforestation, locals, primarily women, made circles around trees and stop men from cutting them down. So, statement 1 is incorrect. The first Chipko action took place in April 1973 in Mandal village, now in Uttarakhand, and spread over the next five years to many Himalayan districts. The movement sparked after the government decided to allot a plot of forest area in the Alaknanda valley to a sports goods company. With the help from a local NGO, the women of the area went into the forest and formed a circle around the trees, protecting them from the men who came to cut down the trees. So, statement 2 is incorrect 10 / 20 Q10. Which of the following is correct about the Indian Labour Conference (ILC)? a) India has a legal obligation to convene the Indian Labour Conference (ILC) b) It's a bilateral consultative committee c) The first meeting of the Indian Labour Conference was held after independence d) This conference works under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution EXPLANATION: The Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh asked Prime Minister Narendra Modi to convene the Indian Labour Conference (ILC). The most recent session of ILC was held in 2015. The ILC is “required to uphold the noble tradition of tripartism in the country”. India also has a legal obligation to do so since the Parliament has ratified Convention No. 144 of the ILO related to strengthening the tripartite mechanism. Hence option (a) is correct. The Indian Labour Conference (ILC) is the apex level tripartite consultative committee in the Ministry of Labour & Employment to advise the Government on the issues concerning the working class of the country. All the 12 Central Trade Union Organisations, Central Organisations of employers, all State Governments and Union Territories and Central Ministries/Departments concerned with the agenda items, are the members of the ILC 11 / 20 Q11. Consider the following statements with respect to Istanbul Convention: 1.It is a Convention on preventing and combating violence against women. 2.India has signed and ratified the Convention. 3.Turkey was the first country to ratify the Convention. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 3 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION: The Council of Europe Convention on preventing and combating violence against women is better known as the Istanbul Convention. Only European countries have signed this convention. It has been signed by 45 countries and the European Union (EU). In 2012, Turkey became the first country to ratify the Convention. Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct. India has not signed and ratified the Convention. It covers various forms of gender-based violence against women, which refers to violence directed against women because they are women or violence affecting them disproportionately. Gender-based violence against women differs from other types of violence in that the fact that these are perpetrated against a woman is both the cause and the result of unequal power relations between women and men that lead to women’s subordinate status in the public and private spheres which contributes to making violence against women acceptable. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 12 / 20 Q12. Read the following statements: 1.India has been a permanent member of the Arctic Council since 2013. 2.The ‘Last ice area’, which was recently found to be melting, is located near North Greenland in the Arctic. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The Arctic Council is the leading intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation, coordination and interaction among the Arctic States, Arctic Indigenous peoples and other Arctic inhabitants on common Arctic issues, in particular on issues of sustainable development and environmental protection in the Arctic. It was formally established in 1996. India is one of the very few countries to set up a permanent station in the Arctic for the purposes of scientific research. In 2019, India was re-elected as an observer to the Arctic Council. India was first granted the observer status in 2013, along with five other nations. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect. A part of the Arctic’s ice called the “Last Ice Area”, located north of Greenland, has melted before expected. Scientists had believed this area was strong enough to withstand global warming. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 13 / 20 Q13. Read the following statements: 1.Alwar is one of the centres to be connected with Delhi under the Regional Rapid Transit Service (RRTS). 2.The RRTS project is a joint venture of Indian Railway and Japan Railway. 3.The project is dividing Aravalli biodiversity park into two equal halves. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION: A Supreme Court-appointed committee has recommended to the apex court to permit construction of a stretch of the proposed Delhi-Alwar high-speed rail corridor under the Aravalli Biodiversity Park and the extended ridge area, observing that the project is in “public interest” and does not involve felling of trees. The National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC), which is constructing the regional rapid transit system (RRTS) corridor, had earlier obtained permission for the project from the RRB. According to the CEC report, 1.7-km of the 3.6-km stretch under consideration will pass below the Aravalli Biodiversity Park near Vasant Kunj. Thus, option (b) is correct 14 / 20 Q14. The Department of Public Enterprises has been merged under which of the following Ministries? a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry b) Ministry of Finance c) Ministry of Heavy Industries d) Ministry of MSMEs EXPLANATION: The government has merged the Department of Public Enterprises (DPE) with the Finance Ministry to give it better control over key state-owned firms, review their capital expenditure plans and chalk out measures relating to revival as well as the closure of CPSEs. The finance ministry will now have six departments, with five other departments being Economic Affairs, Revenue, Expenditure, Investment and Public Asset Management and Financial Services. The Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises, the parent ministry of DPE, will now be called the Ministry of Heavy Industries. The move comes ahead of the significant privatisation roadmap being pursued by the government, including the strategic sale of Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd (BPCL), Shipping Corporation, Container Corporation, Neelachal Ispat Nigam Ltd, Pawan Hans, Air India, which are expected to be completed in 2021-22. Thus, option (b) is correct 15 / 20 Q15. Project BOLD is associated with which of the following activities? a) Finding new bowling talent in Indian cricket b) Helping the ageing Indian population c) Bamboo cultivation in drought-prone areas d) Using LIDAR technology for bridges EXPLANATION: KVIC & BSF Launch Project BOLD in Jaisalmer to Prevent Desertification and Support Rural Economy. In the first of its kind efforts to develop green cover in the Indian deserts of Rajasthan, Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) planted 1000 bamboo saplings at Tanot village in Jaisalmer, in collaboration with the Border Security Force (BSF). Bamboo plantation, as part of KVIC’s Project BOLD (Bamboo Oasis on Lands in Drought), aims at serving the combined national goals of reducing desertification and providing livelihood and multi-disciplinary rural industry support to the local population. Thus, option (c) is correct. 16 / 20 Q16. Read the following statements: 1.UDISE+ report 2019-2020 is associated with school education. 2.It was released by UNESCO. 3.As per the report, the gross enrolment ratio has improved at all levels in India. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION: Unified District Information System for Education (UDISE) initiated in 2012-13 integrating DISE for elementary and secondary education is one of the largest Management Information Systems on School Education covering more than 1.5 million schools, more than 9.6 million teachers and more than 264 million children. Thus, statement 1 is correct. UDISE+ is an updated and improved version of UDISE. The entire system is now online and has been collecting data in real-time since 2018-19. Union Education Minister on July 1, 2021, released the Report on United Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+) 2019-20 for School Education in India. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect. As per the report, the Gross Enrolment Ratio at all levels of school education has improved in 2019-20 compared to 2018-19. Thus, statement 3 is correct. 17 / 20 Q17. Read the following statements: 1.National Centre for Disease Control is a body meant to control non-communicable disease only. 2.It works under the Ministry of Health and Family welfare. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The National Centre for Disease Control (previously known as the National Institute of Communicable Diseases) is an institute under the Indian Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Thus, statement 2 is correct. The National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC), formerly National Institute of Communicable Diseases (NICD) had its origin as Central Malaria Bureau, established at Kasauli (Himachal Pradesh) in 1909 and following expansion was renamed in 1927 as the Malaria Survey of India. It was established in July 1963 for research in epidemiology and control of communicable diseases and to reorganize the activities of the Malaria Institute of India. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect. The reorganized Institute was established to develop a national centre for teaching and research in various disciplines of epidemiology and control of communicable diseases. 18 / 20 Q18. Read the following statements: 1.Core sector output comprises more than 30% weightage in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). 2.Electricity, natural gas and iron are a few of the components of the core sector. 3.Generally, electricity generation has maximum weightage in the Index. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 3 only EXPLANATION: The Office of Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade is releasing the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) for the Month of June, 2021. ICI measures combined and individual performance of production in selected eight core industries viz. Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement and Electricity. The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Thus, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. The weightage of various core products is as follows: Coal: weight: 10.33 per cent Crude Oil: weight: 8.98 per cent Natural Gas: weight: 6.88 per cent Petroleum Refinery Products: weight: 28.04 per cent Fertilizers: weight: 2.63 per cent Steel: weight: 17.92 per cent Cement: weight: 5.37 per cent Electricity: weight: 19.85 per cent Thus, statement 3 is incorrect. 19 / 20 Q19. India recently assumed the rotating presidency of the UNSC for 2021-22 as a non-permanent member. Which of the following was the predecessor country that handed over the presidency to India? a) Poland b) France c) Ukraine d) Turkey EXPLANATION: India, recently, assumed the rotating presidency of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) and will be hosting signature events related to maritime security, peacekeeping, and counterterrorism in the beginning. India took over the presidency from France. Ambassador of India to the United Nations, TS Tirumurti thanked France Permanent Representative to the UN, Nicolas de Riviere, for steering the UN Security Council. Thus, option (b) is correct. As part of its new role, India will decide the UN body’s agenda for the month and coordinate important meetings on a range of issues. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will be the first Indian PM to preside over a meeting of the UNSC 20 / 20 Q20. Consider the following places, often seen in the news: 1.Spin Boldak 2.Lashkargah 3.Bagram In which of the following country, these places located? a) Lebanon b) Syria c) Afghanistan d) Pakistan EXPLANATION: Spin Boldak is a border town and the headquarters of Spin Boldak district in the southern Kandahar province of Afghanistan, next to the border with Pakistan. Lashkargāh, historically called Bost or Boost, is a city in southwestern Afghanistan and the capital of Helmand Province. It is located in Lashkargah District, where the Arghandab River merges into the Helmand River. Bagram is a town and seat in Bagram District in Parwan Province of Afghanistan, about 25 kilometres north of the capital Kabul. It is the site of an ancient city located at the junction of the Ghorband and Panjshir Valley, near today's city of Charikar, Afghanistan. Thus, option (c) is correct. Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 1234567891011121314151617181920 0 votes, 0 avg 7 Weekly Current Affairs: Quiz (02/August/2021 to 07/August/2021) 1 / 20 Q.1 In which of the following places the Government of India, through its Special Purpose Vehicle, Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Limited (ISPRL), has established petroleum storage facilities? 1. Visakhapatnam 2. Bengaluru 3. Mangaluru 4. Padur Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) All of the above EXPLANATION: Under Phase I of strategic petroleum reserves (SPR) programme, Government of India, through its Special Purpose Vehicle, Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Limited (ISPRL), has established petroleum storage facilities with total capacity of 5.33 Million Metric Tonnes (MMT) at 3 locations, namely_ Visakhapatnam (1.33 MMT). So, statement 1 is correct. Mangaluru (1.5 MMT). So, statement 3 is correct. Padur (2.5 MMT), all the storage facilities have been filled with crude oil. So, statement 4 is correct. The petroleum reserves established under Phase I are strategic in nature and the crude oil stored in these reserves will be used during an oil shortage event, as and when declared so by the Government of India. Under Phase II of the petroleum reserve programme, Government has given approval for establishing two additional commercial-cum-strategic facilities with total storage capacity of 6.5 MMT underground storages at Chandikhol (4 MMT) and Padur (2.5 MMT) on PPP mode. (158 Words) 2 / 20 Q.2 Consider the following statements about United Nations Global Survey on Digital and Sustainable Trade Facilitation: 1. Survey done by United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia Pacific (UNESCAP). 2. India is the best-performing country when compared to the South and South-West Asia region and Asia Pacific region. 3. India’s overall performance is better than the average score of the EU. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION: India has scored 90.32% in United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia Pacific's (UNESCAP) latest Global Survey on Digital and Sustainable Trade Facilitation. So, statement 1 is correct. The Survey hailed this as a remarkable jump from 78.49% in 2019. The Survey notes that India is the best performing country when compared to South and South West Asia region (63.12%) and Asia Pacific region (65.85%). So, statement 2 is correct. The overall score of India has also been found to be greater than many OECD countries including France, UK, Canada, Norway, Finland etc. and the overall score is greater than the average score of the EU. So, statement 3 is correct. India has achieved a 100% score for the Transparency index and 66% in the “Women in trade” component. (136 Words) 3 / 20 Q.3 Consider the following statements regarding Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunisation (GAVI): 1. GAVI is an international organisation working towards creating equal access to new and underused vaccines for children living in the world’s poorest countries. 2. GAVI has observer status at the World Health Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: Gavi is an international organisation – Created in 2000. It is a global Vaccine Alliance, bringing together public and private sectors with the shared goal of creating equal access to new and underused vaccines for children living in the world’s poorest countries. So, statement 1 is correct. GAVI has observer status at the World Health Assembly. So, statement 2 is correct. Gavi brings together developing country and donor governments, the World Health Organization, UNICEF, the World Bank, the vaccine industry in both industrialised and developing countries, research and technical agencies, civil society, the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation and other private philanthropists. (101 Words) 4 / 20 Q.4 Consider the following statements regarding the Stockholm Convention_ 1. The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and environment from Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). 2. Under the Convention, India has completely banned the use of DDT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The Stockholm Convention, ratified by India on 13.01.2006, is a global treaty to protect human health and environment from Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). So, statement 1 is correct. POPs are chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods, become widely distributed geographically, accumulate in the fatty tissue of living organisms and are toxic to human beings and wildlife. POPs travel globally and can cause damage wherever they travel. The Stockholm Convention seeks the elimination or restriction of production and use of all intentionally produced POPs (industrial chemicals and pesticides). The use of DDT is restricted in India. Use of DDT is banned for agricultural purposes; it is produced in a restricted manner for use in vector control only, as India has obtained exemption for use of DDT for vector control. So, statement 2 is incorrect. (139 Words) 5 / 20 Q.5 Which one of the following is the 40th UNESCO World heritage site belonging to Indus valley civilization? a) Lothal b) Dholavira c) Rakhigarhi d) Ganweriwala EXPLANATION: Dholavira, the archaeological site of a Harappan-era city, received the UNESCO world heritage site tag. While Dholavira became the fourth site from Gujarat and 40th from India to make the list, it is the first site of the Ancient Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) in India to get the tag. About Dholavira sites: The IVC acropolis is located on a hillock near present-day Dholavira village in Kutch district, from which it gets its name. It was discovered in 1968 by archaeologist Jagat Pati Joshi. The site’s excavation between 1990 and 2005 under the supervision of archaeologist Ravindra Singh Bisht uncovered the ancient city, which was a commercial and manufacturing hub for about 1,500 years before its decline and eventual ruin in 1500 BC. So, option (b) is correct. (130 Words) 6 / 20 Q.6 Which of the following is/are the properties of Lithium? 1. Under standard conditions, it is one of the lightest metal and the lightest solid element. 2. It is an alkali metal and a rare metal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: Lithium Properties: It is a chemical element with the symbol Li. It is a soft, silvery-white metal. Under standard conditions, it is one of the lightest metal and the lightest solid element. So, statement 1 is correct. It is highly reactive and flammable, and must be stored in mineral oil. It is an alkali metal and a rare metal. So, statement 2 is correct. The alkali metals consist of the chemical elements lithium, sodium, potassium, rubidium, caesium, and francium. Together with hydrogen they constitute group 1, which lies in the s-block of the periodic table. Uses: Lithium metal is used to make useful alloys. For example, with lead to make ‘white metal’ bearings for motor engines, with aluminium to make aircraft parts, and with magnesium to make armour plates. In thermonuclear reactions. To make electrochemical cells. Lithium is an important component in Electric Vehicles, Laptops etc. (145 Words) 7 / 20 Q.7 Consider the following statement regarding Secured Logistics Document Exchange: 1. It will enable generation, storage and interchange of logistics-related documents digitally. 2. It will also provide a complete audit trail of document transfer, faster execution of transactions and lower cost of shipping. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The Digital initiative is now set to improve logistics efficiency, reduce logistics cost. The SLDE platform is a solution to replace the present manual process of generation, exchange and compliance of logistics documents with a digitized, secure and seamless document exchange system. This will enable the generation, storage and interchange of logistics-related documents digitally using Aadhaar and blockchain-based security protocols for data security and authentication. So, statement 1 is correct. It will also provide a complete audit trail of document transfer, faster execution of transactions, lower cost of shipping and overall carbon footprint, easy verification of the authenticity of documents, lowered risk of fraud, etc. So, statement 2 is correct. The proof of concept of the platform has been developed and executed with banks (ICICI, Axis Bank, State Bank of India and HDFC Bank) and stakeholders including freight forwarders, exporters, importers and vessel operators. (142 Words) 8 / 20 Q.8 Consider the following statements regarding Model Tenancy Act (MTA), 2021: 1. The Act is piloted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. 2. The Act will be applied prospectively and will not affect existing tenancies. 3. The Act seeks to cover urban as well as rural areas. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION: After releasing the draft in 2019, the Union Cabinet approved the Model Tenancy Act (MTA) to streamline the process of renting a property in India and aid the rent economy in the estate sector. The new Act is piloted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Thus, statement 1 is correct. States can adopt the Act as it is with fresh legislation, since it is a state subject, or they can amend their existing rent acts to factor in the new MTA. The new Act will be applied prospectively and will not affect existing tenancies. The Act seeks to cover urban as well as rural areas. Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct. The authority will provide a speedy mechanism in resolving disputes and other related matters. It will help overhaul the legal framework with respect to rental housing across the country. (142 Words) 9 / 20 Q.9 The initiative DARPAN, sometimes seen in the news is related to_ a) Improve the quality and governance of school education. b) Platform for all voluntary organisations/NGOs engaged in development activities. c) Disaster preparedness, and responses during health emergencies d) Expand immunization coverage across the country. EXPLANATION: NGO-DARPAN is a platform that provides space for interface between Non-Government organizations (NGOs)/ Voluntary Organizations (VOs) in the country and key Government Ministries/ Departments/ Government Bodies. It started out as an initiative of the Prime Minister's Office, to create and promote a healthy partnership between NGOs/VOs and the Government of India. Now it is an e-governance application offered by NITI Aayog to electronically maintain data and transparency regarding NGOs/VOs in the country. Darpan Launched for Financial Inclusion of Rural Population. The Minister of Communications Shri Manoj Sinha launched DARPAN – “Digital Advancement of Rural Post Office for a New India'' Project to improve the quality of service, add value to services and achieve “financial inclusion” of unbanked rural population. Thus, option (b) is correct. (127 Words) 10 / 20 Q.10 Consider the following statement regarding Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Bill 2021: 1. It provides that an offence which is punishable with imprisonment between three to seven years will be cognizable. 2. The amendment Bill proposes that all offences under the Act be tried in children’s court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Bill, 2021, was passed in Parliament. The bill is an amendment over the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015. Amendments Proposed in the Bill: Serious Offences: Serious offences are those offences for which the punishment under the IPC (Indian Penal Code) or any other law for the time being is imprisonment between three and seven years. Non-cognizable Offences: The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 provides that an offence which is punishable with imprisonment between three to seven years to be cognizable i.e., arrest is allowed without warrant and non-bailable. The Bill amends this to provide that such offences will be non-cognizable. So, statement 1 is not correct. Designated Court: The amendment Bill proposes that all offences under the earlier Act be tried in children’s court. So, statement 2 is correct. (121 Words) 11 / 20 Q.11 Consider the following statements regarding Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay Unnat Krishi Shiksha Yojana (PDDUUKSY)_ 1. The scheme was launched in 2016 to develop human resources in organic farming, natural farming and cow-based economy for environmental sustenance and soil health. 2. It is implemented by the Indian Institute of Science Education & Research. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay Unnat Krishi Shiksha Yojana (PDDUUKSY): The scheme was launched in 2016 to develop human resources in organic farming, natural farming and cow-based economy for environmental sustenance and soil health. So, statement 1 is correct. It is implemented by the Education Wing of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). So, statement 2 is incorrect. Objectives: To build skilled Human Resources at the village level who are relevant for developing organic farming and sustainable agriculture. It provides rural India with technical support in the field of Organic Farming or Natural Farming or Rural Economy or Sustainable Agriculture. To extend other activities of this Yojana at village level through their established centres. (103 Words) 12 / 20 Q.12 Who among the following are listed as the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups in Andaman & Nicobar Islands? 1. Jarawa 2. Koraga 3. Sentinelese 4. Onge Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 EXPLANATION: Name of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group(s) in Andaman & Nicobar Islands - Great Andamanese, Jarawa, Onge, Sentinelese and Shompen. The Sentinelese, also known as the Sentinels and the North Sentinel Islanders, are indigenous people who inhabit North Sentinel Island in the Bay of Bengal in the northeastern Indian Ocean. Designated a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group and a Scheduled Tribe, they belong to the broader class of Andamanese peoples. Along with the Great Andamanese, the Jarawas, the Onge, the Shompen, and the Nicobarese, the Sentinelese are one of the six native and often reclusive peoples of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Unlike the others, the Sentinelese appear to have consistently refused any interaction with the outside world. They are hostile to outsiders and have killed people who approached or landed on the island. Thus, option (c) is correct. (138 Words) 13 / 20 Q.13 Consider the following statements regarding Bru or Reang Community: 1. Bru or Reang community is indigenous to Northeast India, living in Tripura, Mizoram, and Assam. 2. They are recognised as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG). Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The Bru or Reang are a community indigenous to Northeast India, living mostly in Tripura, Mizoram, and Assam. In Tripura, they are recognised as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG). Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct. In Mizoram, they have been targeted by groups that do not consider them indigenous to the state. In 1997, following ethnic clashes, nearly 37,000 Brus fled Mamit, Kolasib and Lunglei districts of Mizoram and were accommodated in relief camps in Tripura. Since then, 5,000 have returned to Mizoram in eight phases of repatriation, while 32,000 still live in six relief camps in North Tripura. In June 2018, community leaders from the Bru camps signed an agreement with the Centre and the two state governments, providing for repatriation in Mizoram. But most camp residents rejected the terms of the agreement. (139 Words) 14 / 20 Q.14 Etherium and Tether, sometimes seen in news are_ a) Central Bank Digital Currencies b) Computer Malwares c) Ransomware Attacks d) Cryptocurrencies EXPLANATION: Bitcoin is the first and biggest of decentralised cryptocurrencies, which are online payment systems that are increasingly becoming mainstream. Etherium, Tether, and Binance Coin are some of the many others that have emerged after Bitcoin. Cryptocurrency is fast gaining popularity in India. It has seen its subscriber base jumping manifold worldwide in the last three years. Last week, cryptocurrency, including Bitcoin, saw huge corrections and spread panic among crypto traders and investors when China cracked down on mining and trading of the cryptocurrency. Since then, the crypto market has seen good recovery. Cryptocurrencies are digital currencies that are backed by blockchain technology, which works on decentralization. Thus, option (d) is correct. (111 Words) 15 / 20 Q.15 Consider the following statements regarding indemnity: 1.Once the government of India grants indemnity to the vaccine manufacturer, and if that vaccine has caused death, then any claim of compensation arising from it will have to be met by the vaccine manufacturer. 2. The law on drugs in India can provide indemnity to any kind of new drug or vaccine. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: Indemnity is a form of contract. The law on drugs in India does not have a provision for indemnity related to the grant of approval for any new drug or vaccine in the country. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. Once the government of India grants such indemnity to the vaccine manufacturer or importer, it would mean that if a particular vaccine is perceived to have caused death or any lasting damage to a recipient, any claim of compensation arising from it will have to be met by the government, and not by the company. In the event of a court ordering payment, the company will be in a position to recover the amount from the government. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. (122 Words) 16 / 20 Q.16 Which of the following are the benefits of Blockchain Technology? 1. No single point of failure 2. Real-time information processing and verification 3. Reduce the cost and complexity of cross-enterprise business processes 4. Reduced data duplication Select the correct answer using codes given below: a) 2 and 4 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 EXPLANATION: The benefits that blockchain offers is actually simplifying the way we work. Speeding up transactions: Blockchain provides all parties involved within a business network with a secure and synchronized record of transactions. Blockchain's verification system can enable real-time information processing, verifying and maintaining all the way through to the settlement of transactions. Cutting cost and complexity: Implementing blockchain technology can allow you to leverage the power of your business’ ecosystem to do things faster and vastly reduce the cost and complexity of cross-enterprise business processes. By removing the intermediary, settling transactions becomes quicker and simpler. Increasing resilience: Due to the distributed and shared nature of the blockchain there is no single point of failure. This makes it significantly more resilient than current systems. Thus, option (d) is correct. (128 Words) 17 / 20 Q.17 Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Privileges_ 1. Parliamentary Privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”. 2. Parliamentary privileges as specified exclusively in the Constitution only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The Supreme Court recently held that lawmakers cannot indulge in criminal acts on the Parliament or Assembly floors and then take cover behind the right to free speech. Parliamentary Privileges Parliamentary Privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”. So, statement 1 is correct. Article 105 of the Constitution expressly mentions two privileges, that is, freedom of speech in Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings. Apart from the privileges as specified in the Constitution, the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides for freedom from arrest and detention of members under civil process during the continuance of the meeting of the House or of a committee thereof and forty days before its commencement and forty days after its conclusion. So, statement 2 is incorrect. (139 Words) 18 / 20 Q.18 Consider the following statements: 1. The Olive Ridley Turtle is listed as Critically Endangered under the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red list. 2.All five species of sea turtles found in India are included in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. 3. Olive Ridley Turtles mass nesting is called arribada. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 3 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION: The Olive Ridley (Lepidochelys olivacea) is listed as vulnerable under the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. All five species of sea turtles found in India are included in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, and in Appendix I of the Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which prohibits trade in turtle products by signatory countries. Thus, statement 2 is correct. The Olive Ridley has one of the most extraordinary nesting habits in the natural world, including mass nesting called arribadas. Thus, statement 3 is correct. The 480-km-long Odisha coast has three arribada beaches at Gahirmatha, the mouth of the Devi river, and in Rushikulya, where about 1 lakh nests are found annually. More recently, a new mass nesting site has been discovered in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. (148 Words) 19 / 20 Q.19 Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status? 1. Jardalu mango 2. Hapus mango 3. Laxman Bhog mango 4. Banaganapalle mango 5. Appemidi mango Select the correct answer using codes given below: a) 1 and 4 only b) 2, 3 and 5 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 EXPLANATION: A geographical indication (GI) is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin. In order to function as a GI, a sign must identify a product as originating in a given place. It is important that the product derives its qualities and reputation from that place. Some examples of GIs are Champagne, Scotch Whiskey, Parmesan Cheese and Swiss Watches. All the mangoes mentioned above have been accorded the Geographical Indication tag. Mango State Jardalu mango – Bihar Hapus mango – Maharashtra Laxmanbhog mango – West Bengal Banaganapalle mango – Andhra Pradesh Appemidi mango – Karnataka Thus, option (d) is correct. (115 words) 20 / 20 Q.20 Consider the following statements with respect to the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF): 1. It ranks higher educational institutions across India. 2. 90% of the parameters in NIRF are completely objective and fact-based, while only 10% is based on the subjective parameter of perception by academic peers and employers. Which of the given statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) ranks higher educational institutions in India based on 9 categories: Overall Ranking (1), Category-Specific Rankings (2 – Universities and Colleges) and Domain-Specific Rankings (6- Engineering, Management, Law, Pharmacy, Architecture and Medical). The Framework uses several parameters for ranking purposes like resources, research, and stakeholder perception. These parameters have been grouped into five clusters and these clusters were assigned certain weightages. The weightages depend on the type of institution. About 3500 institutions voluntarily participated in the first round of rankings. 90% of the parameters in NIRF are completely objective and fact-based, while only 10% is based on the subjective parameter of perception by academic peers and employers. Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct. (118 Words) Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte
